Daily Static MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams - Polity (22 August 2023)

Daily Static MCQs Quiz for UPSC, IAS, UPPSC/UPPCS, MPPSC. BPSC, RPSC & All State PSC Exams

Subject : Polity

1. Consider the following statements with reference to Motion of Thanks.

1. Amendments to Motion of Thanks can be moved in both the houses in such form as may be considered appropriate by the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
2. The Motion of Thanks is deemed to be a no-confidence motion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

  • Notices of amendments to Motion of Thanks on the President’s Address can be tabled after the President has delivered his Address. Amendments may refer to matters contained in the Address as well as to matters, in the opinion of the member, the Address has failed to mention. Amendments can be moved to the Motion of Thanks in such form as may be considered appropriate by the Speaker in Lok Sabha and Chairman in Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Members of Parliament vote on this motion of thanks. This motion must be passed in both the houses. A failure to get motion of thanks passed amounts to defeat of government and leads to collapse of government. This is why, the Motion of Thanks is deemed to be a no-confidence motion. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

2. Consider the following statements regarding Double Jeopardy:

1. It means that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
2. The Constitution bars double punishment for the same offence.
3. A partial protection against double jeopardy is a Fundamental Right.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Article 20(2) says that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. This is called Doctrine of Double Jeopardy. The objective of this article is to avoid harassment, which must be caused for successive criminal proceedings, where the person has committed only one crime. Constitution bars double punishment for the same offence. The conviction for such offence does not bar for subsequent trial and conviction for another offence and it does not matter even if some ingredients of these two offences are common. A partial protection against double jeopardy is a Fundamental Right guaranteed under Article 20 (2) of the Constitution of India, which states “No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once”. The Supreme Court of India has ruled that the bar of double jeopardy does not arise if an accused was discharged of a criminal offence, even before the commencement of trial, on the basis of an invalid sanction for prosecution. Hence, all statements are correct.

3. With reference to office of whip, consider the following statements:

1. The office of whip is not mentioned in the constitution, but is mentioned in the Parliamentary statute.
2. He is appointed by the speaker in Lok sabha and by the Chairman in the Rajya sabha.
3. He regulates and monitors the behaviour of the party members in the Parliament.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

  • The office of ‘whip’, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Every political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • He regulates and monitors the behaviour of the party members in the Parliament. The members are supposed to follow the directives given by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action can be taken. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

4. Which Act enabled the Governor General to associate representatives of the Indian People with the work of legislation by nominating them to his expanded council?

(a) Government of India Act, 1858
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

  • Indian Councils Act, 1861, made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council.
  • In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council—the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao. Hence, option (b) is correct.

5. The Vice-president of India is elected by the Electoral College consisting of:

1. Elected Members of the Parliament.
2. Nominated Members of the Parliament.
3. Elected Members of State Legislative Assemblies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Vice-President is elected by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Thus, this Electoral College is different from the electoral college for the election of the President in the following two respects:

  1. It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of president, only elected members).
  2. It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included).

Hence, option (a) is correct.