Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams (26 November 2022)

Current Affairs MCQs Quiz for UPSC, IAS, UPPSC/UPPCS, MPPSC. BPSC, RPSC & All State PSC Exams

Date: 26 November 2022

Q1. “Climate Action Tracker”, which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

a) Database created by coalition of research organisations.
b) Wing of "International Panel of Climate Change.
c) Committee under "United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

  • The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of “holding warming well below 2 °C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5 °C.”
  • A collaboration of two organizations, Climate Analytics and New Climate Institute, the CAT has been providing this independent analysis to policymakers since 2009.

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding initiatives regarding promoting millet production:

1. The government of India declared (in 2018) millets as “Nutri-Cereals”, considering their “high nutritive value” and also “anti-diabetic properties”.
2. The year 2018 was observed as the ‘National Year of Millets”.
3. United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

  • The Union Agriculture Ministry, in April 2018, declared millets as “Nutri-Cereals”, considering their “high nutritive value” and also “anti-diabetic properties”. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • India declared 2018 as the “National year of millets”. So, statement 2 is correct.
  • Government of India had proposed to United Nations for declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets (IYOM). The proposal of India was supported by 72 countries and United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets on 5th March 2021. So, statement 3 is correct.

So, option (d) is correct.

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Northeastern states.

1. Assam and Meghalaya both states are listed in the 5th schedule of Indian Constitution.
2. The Sixth Schedule provides provisions for the administration of tribal areas to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states.
3. It provides for autonomy in the administration of these areas through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

  • The Sixth Schedule in the Indian Constitution established Autonomous District Councils (ADC) in four northeastern states, namely Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Thus statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • It provides for autonomy in the administration of these areas through Autonomous District Councils. Thus statement 3 is correct.

Q4. Which of the following multilateral grouping has both Australia and India as the members.

1. Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD)
2. Supply Chain Resilience Initiative.
3. Indo-Pacific Economic Forum (IPEF)
4. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)

Choose the CORRECT answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Both India and Australia are members of

  • The four-nation Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD).
  • The trilateral Supply Chain Resilience Initiative along with Japan.
  • The US led Indo-Pacific Economic Forum (IPEF).
  • Hence, options-1, 2, and 3 are correct.
  • India is not a member of the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC), although Australia is a member of APEC.
  • Hence, Option -4 is incorrect.

Q5. Which of the following factor (s) will help in decreasing income elasticity of currency demand.

1. Surge in cashless online payments.
2. Enhancing direct benefit transfers (DBTs).
3. Formalization of high denomination notes (HDNs) via bank deposits.
4. Encouraging cash transactions.
5. Restrictions on cash transactions.

Choose the CORRECT answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d) All of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

  • Income elasticity of demand is an economic measure of how responsive the quantity demanded for a good or service is to a change in income.
  • Income elasticity of currency demand:
  • It indicates how the demand of currency in the economy is changing as the income of people changes.
  • Surge in cashless online payments will reduce the cash requirements thus elasticity will decrease, hence statement-1 is correct.
  • Digitization of direct benefit transfers will reduce cash handling and thus flow of cash is decreased in the economy, hence decrease in elasticity.
  • Statement-2 is also correct.
  • Formalization of high denomination notes (HDNs) via bank deposits reduces currency and cash with the public which also decreases elasticity, hence statement-3 is also correct.
  • As the cash transactions are increased, the flow of cash in the economy will increase and elasticity will increase vis-a-vis restrictions on cash transactions which reduces elasticity of currency demand.
  • Hence, statement-4 is incorrect and statement-5 is correct.