Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams (17 June 2023)

Current Affairs MCQs Quiz for UPSC, IAS, UPPSC/UPPCS, MPPSC. BPSC, RPSC & All State PSC Exams

Date: 17 June 2023

1. 'The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) plans to introduce a new feature in the second half of this year. In the context of the pension schemes in India, consider the following statements:

1. In the old scheme, employees receive a pension equal to 50% of their last drawn salary based on a predetermined formula.
2. National Pension Scheme (NPS) is being implemented and regulated by PFRDA which is a statuary regulatory body.
3. Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a pension scheme launched in 2015, by Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority(PFRDA)

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

  • Under the old scheme, employees get a pension under a pre-determined formula which is equivalent to 50% of the last drawn salary. They also get the benefit of the revision of Dearness Relief (DR), twice a year. The payout is fixed and there was no deduction from the salary. Moreover, under the OPS, there was the provision of the General Provident Fund (GPF). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority Act was passed on 19th September 2013 and the same was notified on 1st February 2014. PFRDA is regulating NPS, subscribed by employees of Govt. of India, State Governments, and by employees of private institutions/organizations & unorganized sectors. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Atal Pension Yojana is a pension scheme under the Government of India. This scheme replaces the SwavalambanYojana and was established to provide old age income security to the workers belonging to the unorganised sector. The Atal Pension Yojana was launched by PM Narendra Modi on 9th May 2015 in Kolkata. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

2. Consider the following statements:

1. The Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) is developed by Pune's Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics.
2. L1 is a Lagrangian point, one of five in the Earth-Sun system's orbital plane.
3. Lagrange Points are positions where gravitational forces create stable regions of attraction and repulsion.
4. ADITYA-L1 will be ISRO’s first space observatory dedicated to studying the Sun.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

  • The Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) developed by Pune's Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA) has been delivered to the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for integration with the ADITYA-L1 mission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Lagrangian points are specific locations in the orbital plane of a two-body system, such as the Earth-Sun system, where the gravitational forces and the centrifugal forces balance each other out. There are five Lagrangian points designated as L1, L2, L3, L4, and L5.L1, which stands for Lagrangian point 1, is situated between the Earth and the Sun, along the line connecting their centers.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Lagrange points are indeed positions in a gravitational system where the gravitational forces of two large objects, such as a planet and its moon or a planet and the Sun, create a stable region of equilibrium. However, the stable regions of attraction and repulsion are not always present at all Lagrange points.Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Aditya-L1 is the first observatory-class space-based solar mission from India. The spacecraft will be placed in a halo orbit around the first Lagrange point, L1, of the Sun-Earth system. A satellite around the L1 point has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without occultation/eclipses. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

3. As per World Bank's latest Migration and Development Brief , arrange the following countries in decreasing order of receiving remittance’s:

1. India
2. China
3. Mexico
4. Bangladesh

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 1-3-2-4
(c) 2-1-4-3
(d) 3-4-2-1

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The top five recipient countries for remittances in 2022 were India ($111 billion), followed by Mexico ($61 billion), China ($51 billion), the Philippines ($38 billion), Pakistan ($30 billion) and Bangladesh ($21 billion). India's remittance inflows are projected to grow by only 0.2% in 2023, following a record-high growth of over 24% to reach $111 billion in 2022, as per the World Bank's Migration and Development Brief. India holds the position of being the world's largest recipient of remittances. Remittances contribute to bolstering India's foreign exchange reserves and aid in financing its current account deficit. Hence, option (b) is correct.

4. Consider the following statements regarding MQ-9 Reaper:

1. The MQ-9 Reaper, which is also called Predator B, is an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV).
2. It is capable of remotely controlled or autonomous flight operations.
3. It is developed by General Atomics, a Russia based defence company.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

  • Ahead of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to the U.S. The Defence Acquisition Council approved the procurement of 31 armed MQ-9 Reaper Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) from General Atomics. The General Atomics MQ-9 Reaper, which is also called Predator B, is an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV). It is capable of remotely controlled or autonomous flight operations. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are correct.
  • It has been developed by General Atomics Aeronautical Systems (GA-ASI) for the United States Air Force (USAF). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • This deal will significantly enhance the maritime surveillance capability of the Indian Navy over the Indian Ocean Region. They will reduce the stress on the P-8I maritime patrol aircraft.
  • India is also the first non-treaty partner to be offered a Missile Technology Control Regime Category-1 Unmanned Aerial System – the Sea Guardian UAS manufactured by General Atomics.

5. Drip Pricing, often seen in the news, is related to which of the following?

(a) It is a technique in which multinational companies fix their product’s pricing of their international products.
(b) It is the pricing mechanism which includes the cost of subsidies offered by the government to recover the subsidy cost from the end consumer.
(c) It is a mechanism announced by RBI to support local exporters to deal with increasing inflation.
(d) It is a technique in which firms advertise only part of a product's price and reveal other charges later at final billing.

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Drip pricing is a pricing technique in which firms advertise only part of a product's price and reveal other charges later at final billing. Deceptive online patterns are a violation of the Consumer Protection Act. A robust self-regulatory mechanism for the larger framework on online deceptive patterns is the need of the hour. Hence, option (d) is correct.